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I'm a little baffled cus most cloud based VPNs usually advertise that they use VPN + proxy. So what i'm wondering is, is that when you set-up/connect to that 2nd machine that is required in order for OpenVPN to work, are you now considered to be in a proxy? I realize a proxy is a computer that acts as an intermediary for requests between point A and point B. Which also leads me to another question, is a MITM considered a malicious proxy?
Last edited by linux4evr5581; 10-01-2016 at 01:14 PM.
VPN should be just considered a tunnel (hopefully secure) to another network. What is on that other network could be anything, just access to certain network devices, path to the internet, proxy, etc. I have ad blocking (and malicious site blocking) set up on my router, so I'll sometimes vpn to home to block ads.
If you didn't set it up, or personally trust who did, then the MITM can be very bad.
There are two modes of OpenVPN: tunnel and bridge.
In "Tunnel" mode, OpenVPN acts like a secure router, transferring TCP/IP traffic to a secure subnet. (Much like the router in your home or office connects you to the Internet.)
In "Bridge" mode, OpenVPN acts like a secure switch, transferring everything, TCP/IP or not.
Although, strictly speaking, this is very similar to proxying, the terminology is different. We don't say that OpenVPN is a "proxy."
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